About the Questions

The following sample questions provide a preview of some of the question types that will appear on the NextGen bar exam, which will launch in July 2026. Additional samples will be released throughout 2023 and 2024. Sign up here to be notified of future releases.

For information on the three-year study of the bar exam on which the NextGen bar exam is based, please see the Final Report of the Testing Task Force.

Eight Foundational Concepts and Principles will be tested on every administration of the NextGen bar exam. These are Civil Procedure, Contract Law, Evidence, Torts, Business Associations, Constitutional Law, Criminal Law, and Real Property. In addition, select American Bar Association Model Rules of Professional Conduct will be tested.

Throughout the exam, seven Foundational Skills, organized into four broad skills areas, will be assessed:

    1. Issue spotting and analysis, investigation and evaluation
    2. Client counseling and advising, negotiation and dispute resolution, client relationship and management
    3. Legal research
    4. Legal writing and drafting

For outlines of testable legal doctrine and skills, please see the NextGen Bar Exam Content Scope.

The NextGen bar exam will feature three broad categories of question types:

Multiple-Choice Questions: Almost half the exam time will be devoted to stand-alone multiple-choice questions with between four and six answer options and one or more correct answers. Initially, many of these questions will closely resemble Multistate Bar Examination (MBE) questions; this will ensure stability between scores for the current and NextGen bar exams. In future administrations, the variety of multiple-choice question types will increase. Note that some multiple-choice questions may also appear in the integrated question sets and longer writing tasks, which are described below. Sample Multiple-Choice Questions

Integrated Question Sets: Just under one-third of the exam time will be devoted to integrated question sets. Each of these sets is based on a common fact scenario and may include some legal resources (e.g., excerpts of statutes or judicial opinions) and/or supplemental documents (e.g., a police report or excerpt from a deposition) and include a mixture of multiple-choice and short-answer questions. In addition to testing doctrinal law, some integrated question sets will be focused on drafting or editing a legal document; other sets will be focused on counseling and/or dispute resolution. Sample Integrated Question Set

Longer Writing Tasks: Approximately a quarter of the exam time will be devoted to two longer writing tasks. These tasks, like current Multistate Performance Test (MPT) questions, will require examinees to demonstrate their ability to use fundamental lawyering skills in realistic situations, completing tasks that a beginning lawyer should be able to accomplish. These tasks may feature areas of doctrinal law, with accompanying legal resources, not included in the Foundational Concepts and Principles. These areas of doctrinal law might include, for example, Family Law, Trusts and Estates, or Administrative Law. One of the two longer writing tasks will include several multiple-choice questions and short constructed response questions focused on research skills, followed by a longer writing assignment. Samples of these question types are not yet ready for release. To review examples of MPTs as currently used, on which these tasks are modeled, see:

Sample Multiple-Choice Questions

Almost half the exam time will be devoted to stand-alone multiple-choice questions with between four and six answer options and one or more correct answers. Initially, many of these questions will closely resemble Multistate Bar Examination (MBE) questions; this will ensure stability between scores for the current and NextGen bar exams. In future administrations, the variety of multiple-choice question types will increase. This sample set of questions includes both new question types and questions in the current MBE format. Note that some multiple-choice questions may also appear in the integrated question sets and longer writing tasks.

Multiple-Choice Question 1

You are a criminal defense lawyer representing a client who has been charged with fentanyl possession. The police found the fentanyl in the guest bedroom of the client’s uncle’s house when responding to a noise complaint at the house. Before entering the house, the officers knocked on the door. When the uncle answered the door, the officers asked if they could look inside the house, and the uncle agreed. The client did not live in the house and was not there at the time of the search. The client had stayed in the guest bedroom of the house two nights prior to the search. The uncle told the officers that the client was the last person to have slept in that room.

You are considering filing a motion to suppress the fentanyl under the Fourth Amendment.

Which of the following legal topics are the most important for you to research to determine the likelihood of success on a motion to suppress? Select two.

    1. Consent search.
    2. Exigent circumstances.
    3. Hot pursuit.
    4. Probable cause.
    5. Reasonable suspicion.
    6. Standing.

Question 1 Answer

The correct answers are (A) and (F). Partial credit is available for this question.

Multiple-Choice Question 2

Your client owns a carpet cleaning company. The company recently contracted with a customer to clean the carpets throughout the customer’s ten-story building for $15,000, with payment due in 30 days. Before payment was due, the customer sent your client a check for $12,000 along with a note specifying that several of the carpets still had stains and included pictures of the stained carpets. The customer’s note also said that if your client cashes the check, the remainder of the customer’s debt will be discharged.

Your client now seeks your advice as to whether the company can cash the check without relinquishing its right to recover the remainder of the customer’s debt.

Which of the following search term(s) would be the most likely to produce resources that will answer the client’s question? Select one.

    1. Accord and satisfaction.
    2. Consideration.
    3. Novation.
    4. Offer and acceptance.

Question 2 Answer

The correct answer is (A).

Multiple-Choice Question 3

A defendant is being prosecuted for conspiracy to possess methamphetamine with intent to distribute. At trial, the government seeks to have its agent testify to a conversation that he overheard between the defendant and a coconspirator regarding the incoming shipment of a large quantity of methamphetamine. That conversation was also audiotaped, though critical portions of it are inaudible. The defendant objects to the testimony of the agent on the ground that it is not the best evidence of the conversation.

Is the testimony of the agent admissible? Select one. 

    1. No, because the testimony of the agent is not the best evidence of the conversation.
    2. No, because the testimony of the agent recounts hearsay not within any exception.
    3. Yes, because the best evidence rule does not require proof of the conversation through the audiotape.
    4. Yes, because the audiotape is partly inaudible.

Question 3 Answer

The correct answer is (C).

Multiple-Choice Question 4

Your client, a bank, purchased a mortgage and promissory note from a credit union that had lent a borrower money to help finance the purchase of a home. The borrower has stopped making the payments on that obligation, and the client has initiated a foreclosure action. Another lender has now come forward, claiming that they have a prior mortgage on the same land and should be paid before your client from any money collected via foreclosure.

Which of the following legal topics is the most likely to affect whether the client can collect what is owed on its mortgage and promissory note before the other lender? Select one.

    1. Covenants of title.
    2. Deficiency statutes.
    3. Recording statutes.
    4. Statute of frauds.

Question 4 Answer

The correct answer is (C).

Multiple-Choice Question 5

A construction worker sued an insulation manufacturer in federal court, claiming that he had developed a chronic health condition as a result of 20 years of exposure to the manufacturer’s insulation at his work sites. The manufacturer answered, denying all liability and stating that it had never supplied its insulation to the worker’s employer.

The worker’s attorney deposed the manufacturer’s president, and the manufacturer’s attorney deposed the worker. Immediately thereafter, the manufacturer moved for summary judgment on the ground that the worker had no evidence showing that the insulation had ever been used by the worker’s employer.

What would be the worker’s best response to the motion for summary judgment? Select one. 

    1. Argue that more time is needed for additional discovery to show the manufacturer’s liability, and attach a declaration describing the desired discovery.
    2. Argue that the motion should be denied, because a central issue in the case will be the manufacturer’s credibility on the question of its distribution of the insulation, and only a jury can decide questions of credibility.
    3. Argue that the motion should be denied, because the manufacturer failed to attach any evidence to its motion to show that the insulation was not used by the worker’s employer.
    4. Make a cross-motion for summary judgment arguing that the manufacturer has introduced no evidence to show that its insulation did not harm the worker.

Question 5 Answer

The correct answer is (A).

Multiple-Choice Question 6

You are representing a client in a dispute with a neighbor. The client owns a single-family home with several acres of surrounding land. Recently, the client noticed that his neighbor had built a fence that extends onto the client’s land. The client is unsure when the fence was built because that part of the client’s land is obscured by large trees. When the client contacted the neighbor about the fence, the neighbor claimed that she did not know the location of the property line. The client has shown you a recent survey of the property that confirms the encroachment and has asked you whether he has a claim against the neighbor.

Which of the following legal topics are the most important for you to research before advising the client? Select two.

    1. Adverse possession.
    2. Conversion.
    3. Implied easement.
    4. License.
    5. Negligence.
    6. Trespass.

Question 6 Answer

The correct answers are (A) and (F). Partial credit is available for this question.

Multiple-Choice Question 7

Your client, a state college, hired a tennis coach at a salary of $60,000 per year. The parties orally agreed on a start date but did not discuss a contract duration. Seven months after the coach started, the client now wants to fire the coach without holding a hearing because of budget cuts to the college’s athletic department. The client has asked for your advice about the potential legal repercussions of firing the coach.

Which of the following legal topics are the most important for you to research before advising the client? Select two.

    1. Employment at will.
    2. Parol evidence.
    3. Procedural due process.
    4. Substantial performance.
    5. Substantive due process.
    6. Takings clause.

Question 7 Answer

The correct answers are (A) and (C). Partial credit is available for this question.

Multiple-Choice Question 8

A landlord and a tenant orally agreed to a commercial tenancy for a term of six months beginning on July 1. Rent was to be paid by the first day of each month, and the tenant paid the first month’s rent at the time of the agreement.

When the tenant arrived at the leased premises on July 1, the tenant learned that the previous tenant had not vacated the premises at the end of her lease term on May 31 and did not intend to vacate. The tenant then successfully sued the previous tenant for possession. The tenant did not inform the landlord of the eviction action until after the tenant received possession.

The tenant then sued the landlord, claiming damages for that portion of the lease period during which the tenant was not in possession.

If the court finds for the landlord, what will be the most likely explanation? Select one. 

    1. By suing the previous tenant for possession, the tenant elected that remedy in lieu of a suit against the landlord.
    2. The landlord had delivered the legal right of possession to the tenant.
    3. The tenant failed to timely vacate as required to sue for constructive eviction.
    4. The tenant had not notified the landlord before bringing the eviction action.

Question 8 Answer

The correct answer is (B).

Sample Integrated Question Set

Just under one-third of the exam time will be devoted to integrated question sets. Each of these sets is based on a common fact scenario and may include some legal resources (e.g., excerpts of statutes or judicial opinions) and/or supplemental documents (e.g., a police report or excerpt from a deposition) and include a mixture of multiple-choice and short-answer questions. In addition to testing doctrinal law, some integrated question sets will be focused on drafting or editing a legal document; other sets will be focused on counseling and/or dispute resolution.

Your law firm encourages you to take on pro bono cases. Recently, you agreed to take on a pro bono case through your local bar’s volunteer lawyers program in which you represent a tenant whose apartment has flooded. The following is an excerpt from your notes from the initial interview with the client:

Notes from the Initial Interview

During a recent hurricane, a lot of water entered the client’s apartment. The apartment has carpet throughout, which was completely soaked. The property manager refuses to do anything about the flooding and said that the lease the client signed makes this the client’s responsibility. The property manager also claims that the client did not take proper precautions before the storm, which made the flooding worse. The client disagrees. After the storm, the property manager recommended that the client buy a water pump and some fans to “dry things out.” The client tried this, but it didn’t fix the problem. The apartment is still wet and smells “unbearably bad.” The client can’t afford to try to fix it anymore. The client does not want to move but can’t keep on living in these conditions.

The client is in a month-to-month lease. The lease identifies the landlord as “Rentals LLC.” The lease was signed by both your client and the property manager, who signed as “the Managing and Sole Member of Rentals LLC.” The lease includes the following provision:

Condition of the Premises

Landlord (“Rentals LLC”) makes no covenants or warranties about the condition of the leased premises and disclaims all responsibility for the condition of the leased premises. Tenant agrees to be solely responsible for maintaining the condition of the leased premises. Tenant waives any and all rights to the contrary, including but not limited to a right to bring a claim related to the habitability of the leased premises.

The lease does not include any provision on what damages may be available in the event of breach. Your jurisdiction has a residential landlord-tenant statute that applies to the lease. The following is an excerpt from that statute:

6-20-5 Landlord’s Duty to Maintain Premises; Prohibited Conduct

(a) Subject to subsections (b) and (c), a landlord has a nonwaivable duty to maintain the premises in a habitable condition, including making necessary repairs. The duty includes but is not limited to a requirement that the landlord ensure that the premises . . . have effective waterproofing and weather protection of the roof and exterior walls, including windows and doors. . . . Tenants have a cause of action for breach of this duty, with remedies as set forth in § 6-20-10 [Tenant Remedies]. This cause of action supplants any common-law claims for breach of the landlord’s implied warranty of habitability.

(b) The landlord’s duty in subsection (a) is relieved if the uninhabitable condition of the premises was caused by an unreasonable act or omission of the tenant, the tenant’s immediate family member, or the tenant’s guest.

(c) If the premises are substantially damaged by a fire, other casualty, or natural disaster and continued occupancy of the unit is unlawful or dangerous or requires repairs that can be made only if the tenant vacates the premises, the landlord may terminate the lease by giving the tenant reasonable written notice.

(d) Any provision in a lease that purports to waive the landlord’s duty in subsection (a) is unenforceable. If the landlord seeks to enforce such a provision or accepts the tenant’s voluntary compliance with such a provision, the tenant has a cause of action in the amount of three times the periodic rent. This cause of action accrues irrespective of any claim the tenant may have for breach of the duty described in subsection (a).

Integrated Question 1

Which of the following is an accurate application of Section 6-20-5 to the facts? Select one.

    1. The section allows the landlord to enforce the lease provision, making the client responsible for repairs, but the tenant may seek damages of three times the periodic rent.
    2. The section makes the lease provision unenforceable but does not decide the issue of which party is responsible for which portion of the repairs.
    3. The section makes the lease provision unenforceable and makes the landlord responsible for the full extent of the repairs.
    4. The section does not decide the issue of the lease provision’s enforceability but establishes the landlord’s negligence per se.

Question 1 Answer

The correct answer is (B). Section 6-20-5(d) makes the lease provision unenforceable, but § 6-20-5(b) relieves the landlord’s duty to maintain the premises in a habitable condition if the uninhabitable condition was caused by an act or omission of the tenant or a tenant’s guest or family member. (A) is incorrect because, as noted above, § 6-20-5(d) of the statute makes the lease provision unenforceable. (C) is incorrect because the statute does not necessarily make the landlord responsible for the full extent of the repairs; as noted above, § 6-20-5(b) makes the tenant responsible in certain circumstances. (D) is incorrect because, as noted above, § 6-20-5(d) of the statute makes the lease provision unenforceable. Although § 6-20-5(a) establishes a landlord’s duty to provide habitable premises, it does not establish negligence per se.

Integrated Question 2

Section 6-20-5 of the statute does not define the term “habitable.” A partner at your firm has asked a law clerk to determine the jurisdiction’s meaning of the term for the purposes of potential litigation, and the law clerk has asked you for guidance.

Advise the law clerk on two specific legal sources that are the most likely to provide a controlling definition of the term “habitable.”

Question 2 Representative Correct Answers

  • State statute that defines the term as it is used in this statute, such as a “definitions” subsection within the same statutory scheme.
  • High court decision in this state interpreting “habitable” as it is used in this statute.
  • Appellate court decision in this state interpreting “habitable” as it is used in this statute.
  • State regulatory or administrative source if an administrative agency regulates the area and has provided a definition.

Integrated Question 3

You receive an email from your client. In the email, the client asks you “whether it would be a good idea to sue.” You begin your reply to the client by explaining that litigation will consume the client’s personal time and will almost certainly take longer to resolve than reaching a settlement before litigation. You consider what other risks your client would face in litigation.

Considering your client’s objectives and the applicable statute, describe two other potential risks of filing a claim or claims on the client’s behalf.

Question 3 Representative Correct Answers

  • The landlord may be able to use subsection (c) of the statute to terminate the lease, if it is necessary for the client to vacate in order to repair the flood damage.
  • Termination of the lease could also be a concern based on the month-to-month status of the lease (regardless of the statutory provision). Termination is a risk for this client even if the jurisdiction has a statute that prohibits a landlord from terminating in retaliation for filing a complaint.
  • Even if the client remains in the apartment, a lawsuit will further sour the client’s relationship with the landlord.
  • The landlord might counterclaim and allege that the client was negligent, which could open the client up to potential liability.
  • Litigation, particularly about your home, can be extremely stressful and frustrating.

Integrated Question 4

After discussing your research with the client and assisting the client in setting goals, you contact the property manager on the client’s behalf and attempt to negotiate a settlement. The property manager agrees to replace the carpet but refuses to refund any of the client’s past rent or to pay any of the client’s costs. Eventually, negotiations break down, and you prepare to draft a complaint on behalf of the client.

Which of the following facts provide the most support to a cause of action under § 6-20-5(d)? Select two.

    1. The lease provides that the client “waives any . . . right to bring a claim related to the habitability of the leased premises.”
    2. The apartment has an unbearably bad smell.
    3. The property manager claims that the client did not take proper precautions to prevent flood damage.
    4. The client bought a water pump and fans at the property manager’s recommendation.
    5. The client cannot afford to make any other repairs.
    6. The flooding was caused by a hurricane.

Question 4 Answer

The correct answers are (A) and (D). Section 6-20-5(d) states that any provision in a lease prohibited by subsection (a) is unenforceable. If the landlord seeks to enforce the provision or accepts the tenant’s voluntary compliance with the provision, the tenant has a cause of action in the amount of three times the periodic rent. (A) is correct because the lease’s inclusion of a provision that violates this statute is relevant to a request for damages under § 6-20-5(d). (D) is also correct because the fact that the client bought a water pump and fans at the property manager’s recommendation is evidence that Rentals LLC is seeking to enforce the prohibited provision. The client’s purchase of the water pump and fans at the property manager’s recommendation is relevant and supportive even if it is not dispositive. (B), (E), and (F) are incorrect because none of these options is relevant to the lease’s inclusion of a provision that violates the statute or Rentals LLC’s attempt to enforce the provision. (C) raises an issue that, if true, would be relevant but not favorable to the client. Partial credit is available for this question.

Integrated Question 5

Your legal research since the initial client interview supports a finding that the condition of the client’s apartment after the storm fell below the standard of habitability in the jurisdiction. In addition, your factual investigation has established the following:

  • There was nothing that Rentals LLC could reasonably have done to prevent the flooding from the hurricane.
  • The client spent money on fans and a water pump.
  • Since the client notified the property manager about the flood five months ago, the client has continued paying monthly rent in full.

List two claims you could bring on behalf of your client to seek the greatest possible damages for your client. For each claim, describe what remedy you will seek in the complaint. If the remedy is uncertain, describe the information you need to determine the appropriate remedy.

Question 5 Representative Correct Answers

  • Breach of § 6-20-5(a) – I’m going to need to determine remedies through the remedies provision. [We don’t know what it would cover, though possibilities could be the fans/pump and the rental value.]
  • Breach of § 6-20-5(d) – The remedy is three times the monthly periodic rent. I’m going to need to determine what the client’s monthly rent payment is.

Integrated Question 6

Your firm has had some experience with Rentals LLC. The company does not always show up in court to defend small claims against it, and you are concerned that it might be difficult to collect a future judgment against the company.

List two factual issues you could investigate to help determine whether the LLC’s veil can be pierced to collect a future judgment from the property manager personally. In your jurisdiction, the test for piercing the veil of an LLC is the same as the test for piercing the veil of a corporation.

For example, in a torts matter, a factual issue that might require investigation is “whether the plaintiff lost wages as a result of the accident.”

Question 6 Representative Correct Answers

  • Whether any commingling of the company’s assets and the property manager’s assets occurred.
  • Whether the company maintained adequate business records, to the extent the company was required to keep business records.
  • Whether the company disregarded legal formalities, to the extent that the company was required to follow formalities.
  • Whether the property manager was so inseparable from the company as to be its “alter ego.”
  • Whether the property manager used the company as an agent.
  • Whether the property manager intended to use the company to perpetrate a fraud.
  • Whether the company was undercapitalized.